1. A 67-year-old lady comes to clinic complaining of pain across her neck and shoulders and over her hips. She is stiff in the morning for two hours. Her examination, including joint examination, is unremarkable. Which test will be the most useful in establishing the correct diagnosis?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. Rheumatoid factor
C. Shoulder xray
D. Antinuclear antibody
E. Nerve conduction velocities
2. Which of the following is NOT a cause of periarthritis (tendinitis, bursitis)?
A. Injury
B. Repetitive use
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Infection
E. Weather change
3. A 47-year-old man with no known illnesses presents with acute pain and swelling of the left first metatarsal-phalangeal joint. Serum uric acid is normal; arthrocentesis yields a very small amount of fluid, which by polarizing microscopy, is found to contain numerous needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Of the following therapies, the one that is NOT appropriate in this setting is:
A. Colchicine
B. Indomethacin
C. Allopurinol
D. Codeine
E. Ibuprofen
4. A 69-year-old man with a history of primary hyperparathyroidism presents with a swollen and tender knee. Radiographs of the knee demonstrate chondrocalcinosis of the meniscus, as well as a large joint effusion. Which of the following is most likely to be true in this case?
A. Examination of the synovial fluid under a polarizing microscope will reveal negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals
B. Examination of the synovial fluid under the polarizing microscope will reveal positively birefringent, rhomboid-shaped crystals
C. Treatment with allopurinol will improve this mans symptoms
D. An elevated serum uric acid level will establish the diagnosis of gout
5. A 55-year-old male presents with severe proximal muscle weakness and a rash on his neck and face that started after working in his yard last weekend. Which of the following is not true?
A. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease
B. His condition may suggest an underlying malignancy is present
C. He most likely has SLE
D. CPK, LDH and aldolase should be measured
E. Biopsy of an effected muscle is probably required
6. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies include each of the following diseases except:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Polymyositis
C. Arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease
D. Reiters syndrome
E. Psoriatic arthritis
7. Each of the following statements about HLA-B27 positivity and seronegative spondyloarthropathies are true except:
A. The vast majority of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are HLA-B27 positive
B. Caucasian patients with spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease have an increased prevalence of HLA-B27 positivity
C. HLA-B27 is expressed on erythrocytes
D. HLA-B27 positive patients have an increased prevalence of sacroiliitis
E. The tertiart structure if HLA-B27 seems to be important in the pathogenesis of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies
8. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the chronic anterior uveitis associated with Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. It is most commonly associated with pauciarticular disease
B. It is asymptomatic in the majority of cases
C. It can lead to blindness if not treated
D. It can only be detected by a slit lamp exam in its early stages
E. All of the above
9. Which of the following is NOT one of the major Jones criteria (revised) for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
A. Carditis
B. Arthralgia
C. Polyarthritis
D. Subcutaneous nodules
E. Chorea
10. Which of the following is NOT considered an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Vasculitis
B. Wide-mouth diverticula
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Olecranon nodules
E. Eye inflammation
11. A 30-year-old female has hand x-rays which demonstrate small marginal erosions of the MCP joints and the ulnar styloids. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Acute gouty arthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
12. Which of the following characteristics is not commonly seen in osteoarthritis?
A. Erosions
B. Subchondral formation
C. Osteophyte formation
D. Joint space narrowing
13. Characteristic features of osteoarthritis include all of the following except:
A. Joint pain on motion
B. Morning stiffness
C. Crepitius
D. Bony swelling
14. Avascular Necrosis is:
A. A common complication of osteoarthritis
B. Seen more commonly in patients treated with high doses of corticosteroids (for example prednisone) than in patients not treated with corticosteroids
C. Associated with x-ray evidence of joint space narrowing at the time of presentation
D. Easily corrected by early surgical intervention
15. The likely cause of a higher incidence of osteomyelitis in children is:
A. Looped metaphysical vessels which may trap transient bacteria
B. pediatric frequent bactermia
C. An immature immune system
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
16. Osteoarthritis of a joint can be potentially treated by:
A. Fusion of the joint
B. Total joint replacement
C. Osteotomy
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C
17. In myasthenia gravis:
A. Peripheral nerve transmission is defective
B. Is associated with antibodies and bind to actin
C. Muscle weakness is improved with muscle contraction
D. Clinical weakness can be reversed by anti-cholinesterase drugs
18. Polymyositis is an acquired myopathy:
A. Occurs primarily in males
B. Is caused by a virus
C. Usually involves foot and hand muscles
D. Often associated with malignancy
19. Each of the following are clinical characteristics of Reiter's Syndrome except:
A. Urethritis
B. Arthritis
C. Subcutaneious nodules
D. Conjunctivitis
20. Clinically, psoriatic arthritris presents as:
A. An assymetrical oligoarthriths
B. A symmetrical polyarthritis
C. Sacroiliitis
D. All of the above
21. Which of the following is not a characteristic X-ray findings in osteoarthritis?
A. Joint space narrowing
B. Erosions
C. Subchondral sclerosis (eburnation)
D. Osteophyte formation
22. Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Fever
B. Insidious onset of joint pain
C. Bone erosions on x-ray
D. Foot (MTP) pain
E. Symmetrical joint swelling
23. Which of the following is NOT a ARA 1987 classification criterion for rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Morning stiffness of one hour
B. Metacarpophalangeal joint swelling
C. Subcutaneous nodules
D. Cervical (neck) pain
E. Rheumatoid factor
24. All of the following can be seen with rheumatoid arthritis EXCEPT:
A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. Seizures
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Sjogren's syndrome
E. Pleuritis
25. Acute evaluation of fractures should include all but:
A. Evaluation of skin integrity
B. Assessment of neurologic function of the limb
C. Assessment of circulatory status of the limb
D. Emergent MRI to judge soft tissue injury
E. Examination for other injuries
26. All the following are recommended in the acute treatment of a fracture EXCEPT:
A. Rest
B. Elevation
C. Heat
D. Ice
E. Compression
27. Open fractures:
A. have a significant incidence of infection
B. usually are associated with minimal trauma
C. heal more rapidly than closed fractures
D. are always treated with internal fixation (plates and screws)
28. Children's fractures have the following characteristics:
A. usually require operative treatment
B. are more common than adult fractures, but usually less serious
C. usually heal quite slowly
D. are always associated with growth disturbances
29. Trendelenberg gait is positive in patients with weakness of:
A. adductor longus
B. adductor magnus
C. adductor brevis
D. gluteus medius and minimus
E. sartoris
30. Which of the following is true about stress fractures:
A. they occur from repetitive forces below the ultimate strength of the bone
B. they show up on x-ray before they show up on bone scan
C. they are more common in the upper than the lower extremity
D. the injured bone is diffusely tender on examination
31. The pathognomonic fracture of non-accidental trauma is:
A. Corner fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Buckle fracture
D. Complete fracture
E. Open fracture.
32. A Salter/Harris fracture which crosses the physis exiting into the joint is defined as a Salter/Harris:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
33. The earliest sign of compartment syndrome is:
A. Paresthesia
B. Pain out of proportion to injury
C. Pulselessness
D. Paralysis
E. Pallor
34. One type of fracture in which surgical intervention is absolutely necessary is:
A. Corner fracture
B. Complete fracture
C. Salter/Harris fracture
D. Greenstick fracture
E. Open fracture
35. Which of the following is not associated with fibromyalgia?
A. Depression
B. Excessive stage 4 sleep
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Irritable Bowel Disease
36. Which of the following is true about polymyalgia rheumatica?
A. Patients typically have problems swallowing
B. 30% of patients have rheumatoid arthritis
C. It occurs predominantly in people over 50 years of age
D. Most symptoms resolve within 48 hours with ibuprofen
37. Which of the following is NOT true about the uveitis associated with Juvenile rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. it is usually asymptomatic
B. it is most commonly associated with pauciarticular JRA
C. it is best detected by routine slit lamp exams by a ophthalmologist
D. early major damage occurs in the retina
E. early major damage occurs in the cornea, pupil and lens
38. A 36-year old man develops heart failure and cirrhosis, accompanied by a progressive "bronzing" of his skin over several years. He comes to your office because his right knee has been swollen for a few days.After obtaining a complete history and physical exam, you aspirate the knee, obtaining some opaque fluid. The white blood cells count from the fluid is 17,500 cells/mlWhich additional finding would you expect to observe in analyzing the fluid sample under a polarizing microscope?
A. Needle-shaped crystals, with the yellow crystal parallel to the compensator axis.
B. Rhomboid crystals, with the blue crystal parallel to the compensator axis.
C. Chondrocalcinosis.
D. Rhomboid crystals, with the blue crystal perpendicular to the compensator axis.
39. Which therapy is LEAST appropriate for treating acute gouty arthritis
A. Indomethacin
B. Tylenol with codeine
C. Colchicine
D. Allopurinol
E. Prednisone
40. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies include each of the following diseases except:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Polymyositis
C. Arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease
D. Reiter's syndrome
E. Psoriatic arthritis
41. Each of the following statements about HLA-B27 positivity and seronegative spondyloarthropathies are true except:
A. The vast majority of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are HLA-B27 positive
B. Caucasian patients with spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease have an increased prevalence of HLA-B27 positivity
C. HLA-B27 is expressed on erythrocytes
D. HLA-B27 positive patients have an increased prevalence of sacroiliitis
E. The tertiary structure HLA-B27 seems to be important in the pathogenesis of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies
42. All of the following are true about ankylosing spondylitis except:
A. Males are more often symptomatic than females
B. Back pain usually presents after the age of 50
C. Back pain is often relieved by activity
D. The hips are the most commonly involved diarthrodial joints
43. Which of the following is not an expected finding of ankylosing spondylitis?
A. Positive HLA-B27
B. Positive rheumatoid factor
C. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D. Radiographic changes of sacroiliitis
44. A patient has been diagnosed as having rheumatoid arthritis. Which laboratory finding would you NOT expect to find:
A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. HLA-DR4 antigen positive
C. Elevated serum albumin
D. Elevated platelet count
E. Positive rheumatoid factor
45. Which of the following is true regarding fibromyalgia?
A. Depression is a common association
B. Average age of onset is 20-30 years of age
C. Is caused by serotonin receptor dysfunction
D. Incidence is greater in young men
46. Which of the following is true about polymyalgia rheumatica?
A. Patients typically have problem digesting food
B. 30% of patients have temporal arteritis
C. Diagnosis hinges on rapid response with ibuprofen
D. Weight gain is common
47. Fractures heal most effectively when subjected to forces of:
A. Distraction
B. Torsion
C. Compression
D. Hoop stress
E. Nicotine
48. Rationale for OPERATIVE treatment of a fracture include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Restore axial and rotational alignment of extremity
B. Re-establish congruity of joint surface
C. Increase speed of bone healing
D. Permit earlier mobilization of extremities and joints
E. Permit earlier mobilization of multiply injured patient
49. The correct order for the stages of fracture healing is:
A. Inflammation, soft callus, microvascular ingrowth, hard callus, remodeling
B. Inflammation, microvascular ingrowth, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
C. Microvascular ingrowth, inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
D. Inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, microvascular ingrowth, remodeling
E. Inflammation, microvascular ingrowth, hard callus, soft callus, remodeling
50. Which of the following is the most common, serious extra-articular (not involving joints) manifestation of PAUCIARTICULAR Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. Pericarditis
B. asymptomatic anterior uveitis (inflammation in the anterior chamber of the eyes)
C. lymphadenopathy
D. leukemia
E. high spiking fevers
51. Which of the following joints are most commonly involved in osteoarthritis?
A. Distal interphalangeal joints of the hand
B. Metacarpophalangeal joints of the hand
C. Wrists
D. Ankles
52. Which of the following is/are characteristics of osteoarthritis:
A. Morning stiffness
B. Pain at rest
C. Pain on walking
D. All of the above
53. Risk factors for osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) include all of the following except:
A. Oral corticosteroids
B. Hypertension
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
54. Which of the following is not felt to be a risk factor for getting systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. African-American Female
B. Child-bearing age
C. Patient treated for arrhythmia
D. Identical twin of affected pair
E. Complement 4 deficiency
55. Sclerodactyly is associated with which of the following?
A. Raynaud's phenomenon
B. Gout
C. Male gender
D. diarrhea
E. shortened survival
56. The heliotrope rash is seen in which of the following diseases?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. SLE
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Diffuse Systemic sclerosis
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. Rheumatoid factor
C. Shoulder xray
D. Antinuclear antibody
E. Nerve conduction velocities
2. Which of the following is NOT a cause of periarthritis (tendinitis, bursitis)?
A. Injury
B. Repetitive use
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Infection
E. Weather change
3. A 47-year-old man with no known illnesses presents with acute pain and swelling of the left first metatarsal-phalangeal joint. Serum uric acid is normal; arthrocentesis yields a very small amount of fluid, which by polarizing microscopy, is found to contain numerous needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Of the following therapies, the one that is NOT appropriate in this setting is:
A. Colchicine
B. Indomethacin
C. Allopurinol
D. Codeine
E. Ibuprofen
4. A 69-year-old man with a history of primary hyperparathyroidism presents with a swollen and tender knee. Radiographs of the knee demonstrate chondrocalcinosis of the meniscus, as well as a large joint effusion. Which of the following is most likely to be true in this case?
A. Examination of the synovial fluid under a polarizing microscope will reveal negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals
B. Examination of the synovial fluid under the polarizing microscope will reveal positively birefringent, rhomboid-shaped crystals
C. Treatment with allopurinol will improve this mans symptoms
D. An elevated serum uric acid level will establish the diagnosis of gout
5. A 55-year-old male presents with severe proximal muscle weakness and a rash on his neck and face that started after working in his yard last weekend. Which of the following is not true?
A. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease
B. His condition may suggest an underlying malignancy is present
C. He most likely has SLE
D. CPK, LDH and aldolase should be measured
E. Biopsy of an effected muscle is probably required
6. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies include each of the following diseases except:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Polymyositis
C. Arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease
D. Reiters syndrome
E. Psoriatic arthritis
7. Each of the following statements about HLA-B27 positivity and seronegative spondyloarthropathies are true except:
A. The vast majority of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are HLA-B27 positive
B. Caucasian patients with spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease have an increased prevalence of HLA-B27 positivity
C. HLA-B27 is expressed on erythrocytes
D. HLA-B27 positive patients have an increased prevalence of sacroiliitis
E. The tertiart structure if HLA-B27 seems to be important in the pathogenesis of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies
8. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the chronic anterior uveitis associated with Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. It is most commonly associated with pauciarticular disease
B. It is asymptomatic in the majority of cases
C. It can lead to blindness if not treated
D. It can only be detected by a slit lamp exam in its early stages
E. All of the above
9. Which of the following is NOT one of the major Jones criteria (revised) for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
A. Carditis
B. Arthralgia
C. Polyarthritis
D. Subcutaneous nodules
E. Chorea
10. Which of the following is NOT considered an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Vasculitis
B. Wide-mouth diverticula
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Olecranon nodules
E. Eye inflammation
11. A 30-year-old female has hand x-rays which demonstrate small marginal erosions of the MCP joints and the ulnar styloids. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Acute gouty arthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
12. Which of the following characteristics is not commonly seen in osteoarthritis?
A. Erosions
B. Subchondral formation
C. Osteophyte formation
D. Joint space narrowing
13. Characteristic features of osteoarthritis include all of the following except:
A. Joint pain on motion
B. Morning stiffness
C. Crepitius
D. Bony swelling
14. Avascular Necrosis is:
A. A common complication of osteoarthritis
B. Seen more commonly in patients treated with high doses of corticosteroids (for example prednisone) than in patients not treated with corticosteroids
C. Associated with x-ray evidence of joint space narrowing at the time of presentation
D. Easily corrected by early surgical intervention
15. The likely cause of a higher incidence of osteomyelitis in children is:
A. Looped metaphysical vessels which may trap transient bacteria
B. pediatric frequent bactermia
C. An immature immune system
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
16. Osteoarthritis of a joint can be potentially treated by:
A. Fusion of the joint
B. Total joint replacement
C. Osteotomy
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C
17. In myasthenia gravis:
A. Peripheral nerve transmission is defective
B. Is associated with antibodies and bind to actin
C. Muscle weakness is improved with muscle contraction
D. Clinical weakness can be reversed by anti-cholinesterase drugs
18. Polymyositis is an acquired myopathy:
A. Occurs primarily in males
B. Is caused by a virus
C. Usually involves foot and hand muscles
D. Often associated with malignancy
19. Each of the following are clinical characteristics of Reiter's Syndrome except:
A. Urethritis
B. Arthritis
C. Subcutaneious nodules
D. Conjunctivitis
20. Clinically, psoriatic arthritris presents as:
A. An assymetrical oligoarthriths
B. A symmetrical polyarthritis
C. Sacroiliitis
D. All of the above
21. Which of the following is not a characteristic X-ray findings in osteoarthritis?
A. Joint space narrowing
B. Erosions
C. Subchondral sclerosis (eburnation)
D. Osteophyte formation
22. Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Fever
B. Insidious onset of joint pain
C. Bone erosions on x-ray
D. Foot (MTP) pain
E. Symmetrical joint swelling
23. Which of the following is NOT a ARA 1987 classification criterion for rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Morning stiffness of one hour
B. Metacarpophalangeal joint swelling
C. Subcutaneous nodules
D. Cervical (neck) pain
E. Rheumatoid factor
24. All of the following can be seen with rheumatoid arthritis EXCEPT:
A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. Seizures
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Sjogren's syndrome
E. Pleuritis
25. Acute evaluation of fractures should include all but:
A. Evaluation of skin integrity
B. Assessment of neurologic function of the limb
C. Assessment of circulatory status of the limb
D. Emergent MRI to judge soft tissue injury
E. Examination for other injuries
26. All the following are recommended in the acute treatment of a fracture EXCEPT:
A. Rest
B. Elevation
C. Heat
D. Ice
E. Compression
27. Open fractures:
A. have a significant incidence of infection
B. usually are associated with minimal trauma
C. heal more rapidly than closed fractures
D. are always treated with internal fixation (plates and screws)
28. Children's fractures have the following characteristics:
A. usually require operative treatment
B. are more common than adult fractures, but usually less serious
C. usually heal quite slowly
D. are always associated with growth disturbances
29. Trendelenberg gait is positive in patients with weakness of:
A. adductor longus
B. adductor magnus
C. adductor brevis
D. gluteus medius and minimus
E. sartoris
30. Which of the following is true about stress fractures:
A. they occur from repetitive forces below the ultimate strength of the bone
B. they show up on x-ray before they show up on bone scan
C. they are more common in the upper than the lower extremity
D. the injured bone is diffusely tender on examination
31. The pathognomonic fracture of non-accidental trauma is:
A. Corner fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Buckle fracture
D. Complete fracture
E. Open fracture.
32. A Salter/Harris fracture which crosses the physis exiting into the joint is defined as a Salter/Harris:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
33. The earliest sign of compartment syndrome is:
A. Paresthesia
B. Pain out of proportion to injury
C. Pulselessness
D. Paralysis
E. Pallor
34. One type of fracture in which surgical intervention is absolutely necessary is:
A. Corner fracture
B. Complete fracture
C. Salter/Harris fracture
D. Greenstick fracture
E. Open fracture
35. Which of the following is not associated with fibromyalgia?
A. Depression
B. Excessive stage 4 sleep
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Irritable Bowel Disease
36. Which of the following is true about polymyalgia rheumatica?
A. Patients typically have problems swallowing
B. 30% of patients have rheumatoid arthritis
C. It occurs predominantly in people over 50 years of age
D. Most symptoms resolve within 48 hours with ibuprofen
37. Which of the following is NOT true about the uveitis associated with Juvenile rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. it is usually asymptomatic
B. it is most commonly associated with pauciarticular JRA
C. it is best detected by routine slit lamp exams by a ophthalmologist
D. early major damage occurs in the retina
E. early major damage occurs in the cornea, pupil and lens
38. A 36-year old man develops heart failure and cirrhosis, accompanied by a progressive "bronzing" of his skin over several years. He comes to your office because his right knee has been swollen for a few days.After obtaining a complete history and physical exam, you aspirate the knee, obtaining some opaque fluid. The white blood cells count from the fluid is 17,500 cells/mlWhich additional finding would you expect to observe in analyzing the fluid sample under a polarizing microscope?
A. Needle-shaped crystals, with the yellow crystal parallel to the compensator axis.
B. Rhomboid crystals, with the blue crystal parallel to the compensator axis.
C. Chondrocalcinosis.
D. Rhomboid crystals, with the blue crystal perpendicular to the compensator axis.
39. Which therapy is LEAST appropriate for treating acute gouty arthritis
A. Indomethacin
B. Tylenol with codeine
C. Colchicine
D. Allopurinol
E. Prednisone
40. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies include each of the following diseases except:
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Polymyositis
C. Arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease
D. Reiter's syndrome
E. Psoriatic arthritis
41. Each of the following statements about HLA-B27 positivity and seronegative spondyloarthropathies are true except:
A. The vast majority of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are HLA-B27 positive
B. Caucasian patients with spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease have an increased prevalence of HLA-B27 positivity
C. HLA-B27 is expressed on erythrocytes
D. HLA-B27 positive patients have an increased prevalence of sacroiliitis
E. The tertiary structure HLA-B27 seems to be important in the pathogenesis of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies
42. All of the following are true about ankylosing spondylitis except:
A. Males are more often symptomatic than females
B. Back pain usually presents after the age of 50
C. Back pain is often relieved by activity
D. The hips are the most commonly involved diarthrodial joints
43. Which of the following is not an expected finding of ankylosing spondylitis?
A. Positive HLA-B27
B. Positive rheumatoid factor
C. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D. Radiographic changes of sacroiliitis
44. A patient has been diagnosed as having rheumatoid arthritis. Which laboratory finding would you NOT expect to find:
A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. HLA-DR4 antigen positive
C. Elevated serum albumin
D. Elevated platelet count
E. Positive rheumatoid factor
45. Which of the following is true regarding fibromyalgia?
A. Depression is a common association
B. Average age of onset is 20-30 years of age
C. Is caused by serotonin receptor dysfunction
D. Incidence is greater in young men
46. Which of the following is true about polymyalgia rheumatica?
A. Patients typically have problem digesting food
B. 30% of patients have temporal arteritis
C. Diagnosis hinges on rapid response with ibuprofen
D. Weight gain is common
47. Fractures heal most effectively when subjected to forces of:
A. Distraction
B. Torsion
C. Compression
D. Hoop stress
E. Nicotine
48. Rationale for OPERATIVE treatment of a fracture include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Restore axial and rotational alignment of extremity
B. Re-establish congruity of joint surface
C. Increase speed of bone healing
D. Permit earlier mobilization of extremities and joints
E. Permit earlier mobilization of multiply injured patient
49. The correct order for the stages of fracture healing is:
A. Inflammation, soft callus, microvascular ingrowth, hard callus, remodeling
B. Inflammation, microvascular ingrowth, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
C. Microvascular ingrowth, inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
D. Inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, microvascular ingrowth, remodeling
E. Inflammation, microvascular ingrowth, hard callus, soft callus, remodeling
50. Which of the following is the most common, serious extra-articular (not involving joints) manifestation of PAUCIARTICULAR Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. Pericarditis
B. asymptomatic anterior uveitis (inflammation in the anterior chamber of the eyes)
C. lymphadenopathy
D. leukemia
E. high spiking fevers
51. Which of the following joints are most commonly involved in osteoarthritis?
A. Distal interphalangeal joints of the hand
B. Metacarpophalangeal joints of the hand
C. Wrists
D. Ankles
52. Which of the following is/are characteristics of osteoarthritis:
A. Morning stiffness
B. Pain at rest
C. Pain on walking
D. All of the above
53. Risk factors for osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) include all of the following except:
A. Oral corticosteroids
B. Hypertension
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
54. Which of the following is not felt to be a risk factor for getting systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. African-American Female
B. Child-bearing age
C. Patient treated for arrhythmia
D. Identical twin of affected pair
E. Complement 4 deficiency
55. Sclerodactyly is associated with which of the following?
A. Raynaud's phenomenon
B. Gout
C. Male gender
D. diarrhea
E. shortened survival
56. The heliotrope rash is seen in which of the following diseases?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. SLE
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Diffuse Systemic sclerosis
|
1. a
|
2. e
|
|
3. c
|
4. b
|
|
5. c
|
6. b
|
|
7. c
|
8. e
|
|
9. b
|
10. b
|
|
11. d
|
12. a
|
|
13. b
|
14. b
|
|
15. d
|
16. e
|
|
17. d
|
18. d
|
|
19. c
|
20. d
|
|
21. b
|
22. a
|
|
23. d
|
24. b
|
|
25. d
|
26. c
|
|
27. a
|
28. b
|
|
29. d
|
30. a
|
|
31. a
|
32. c
|
|
33. b
|
34. e
|
|
35. b
|
36. c
|
|
37. d
|
38. b
|
|
39. d
|
40. b
|
|
41. c
|
42. b
|
|
43. c
|
44. c
|
|
45. a
|
46. b
|
|
47. c
|
48. c
|
|
49. b
|
50. b
|
|
51. a
|
52. c
|
|
53. b
|
54. c
|
|
55. a
|
56. c
|
